CISCO Questions & Answers Examination

CCNA 4 Module 7 Exploration 4.0 (Set II)

2009-02-26T20:54:00.000+08:00

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

The DHCP server service is not enabled.

The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.

The DHCP pool for the DCHP is not defined.

The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

***The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interface, printer, and server?

***The addresses are statistically assigned by the network administrator.

The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.

The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.

The address must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.

3. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?

***8

4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

***It saves public IP addresses.

***It added a degree pf privacy and security to a network.

It increases routing performance.

It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.

It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.

5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.

Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.

Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.

***PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

6. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?

NAT overload

**Static NAT

Dynamic NAT

PAT

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

101.1.2

192.168.0.100

***209.165.20.25

any address in the 10.1.1.0 network

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
3

***Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.

Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.

***Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.

A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.

External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 network.

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

***defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are allowed into the router

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

10. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?

The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician

***Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.

The translation table may be full is unable to make new translations until space is available.

Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?

4

ip nat pool statement

***access-list statement

ip nat inside is on the wrong interface

interface so/0/2 should be a private IP address

12. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?

A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.

5

The address 172.16.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.

***A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.

A user on the outside must address traffc to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.

13. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broad6 broadcast domains exists in this topology?

***0
1

2

3

4

14. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?

Replace the devices on the public network with devices tht support IPv6.

Configuration RIPng on the border router of each IPv6 island.

Configuration the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.

***use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

15. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?

***Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
Enter the IPv6 rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.

Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command.

RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the IPv6 router rip name command.

16. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fao/o LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)

dynamic NAT

NAT with overloading

6

***open port 20

***open port 21

open port 23

***NAT with port forwarding

17. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for Host A to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?

10.1.1.1

***172.30.20.2

192.168.1.2

255.255.255.255

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving so as a result of the statement IP NAT pool Tampa 172.9.8.96.179.9.8.111 net mask 255.255.255.24.? (Choose two.)

10.0.0.125

179.9.8.95

***179.9.8.98

***179.9.8.101

179.9.8.112

19. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEtherneto/o interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

It will randomly generated a 64 bit interface ID.

7

It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.

It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.

***The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

20. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?

32

48

***64

128

21. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

8

***16

80

128

CCNA 3 Module 3 Exploration 4.0 (Set II)

2008-12-06T17:42:00.007+08:00

1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
• 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
• 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
• 802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
• VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
• VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
• VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
• VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
• VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
• VLAN1 should renamed.
• VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
• All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
• Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
• Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
• Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
• Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.
• Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.
• Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
• A
• A, B
• A, B, D, G
• A, D, F
• C, E
• C, E, F

6. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
• The VLANs may be named.
• VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.
• Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.
• The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.
• Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.
• The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
• A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.
• The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
• Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

8. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
• The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
• The ports default back to the management VLAN.
• The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.
• The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
• VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
• VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

10. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
• DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.
• The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.
• The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.
• A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.
• The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
• By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.
• A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

12. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?
• Disable DTP.
• Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
• Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
• VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.
• The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.
• Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• There is a native VLAN mismatch.
• The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
• The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.
• VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
• The default native VLAN is being used.
• The trunking mode is set to auto.
• Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
• VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

16. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?
• Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.
• Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
• Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.
• Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.

• 17. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?
• none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame
• computer A, computer B, computer C
• computer A, computer D, computer G
• computer B, computer C
• computer D, computer G
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I

18. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
• Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.
• A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.
• Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.
• Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

19. Which two statements about the 802.1q trunking protocol are true? (Choose two.)
• 802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
• 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
• If 802.1q is used on a frame, the FCS must be recalculated.
• 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
• 802.1q allows the encapsulation of the original frame to identify the VLAN from which a frame originated.

20. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?
• dynamic desirable mode
• on or dynamic desirable mode
• on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
• on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

21. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?
• The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.
• The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.
• PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.
• A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

22. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
• Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
• Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

CCNA 1 Module 8 Exploration 4.0

2008-12-05T22:08:00.005+08:00

31. What is characteristic of the operation of a Layer 2 switch?
• forwards data based on logical addressing
• duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
• learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
• uses the destination MAC address to determine the specific interface to forward a frame

32. Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)
• A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
• A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.
• A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.
• A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN
• A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.
• The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.

33.

Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct the problem?
• Replace the hub with a switch.
• Replace the hub with a router.
• Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.
• Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.

34.

Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?
• segments 1 and 2
• segment 2
• segments 3 and 4
• segments 2, 3, and 4
• segments 1, 2, 3, and 4

35.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router

36. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?
• hub
• router
• switch
• repeater

37. Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• bridge
• hub
• switch
• repeater

38. Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)
switch
• repeater
• router
• bridge
• hub

39. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• hub
• switch
• router
• repeater

40.

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?
• 1
• 2
• 5
• 12
• 13
• 15

41. A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?
• The frame is a runt frame.
• The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
• The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.
• The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.

42. A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?
• bridge
• hub
• router
• transceiver

43. What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the table?
• discard frame
• ignore frame
• send frame to appropriate port
• send frame to all ports except source port

44. Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?
• hub
• Layer 2 switch
• router
• bridge
• repeater

45. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?
• bridging
• segmentation
• Address Resolution Protocol
• Spanning-Tree Protocol

CCNA Exploration 4

2008-11-26T19:28:00.011+08:00

Exploration 1 : Network Fundamentals

--download--

Exploration 2 : Routing Protocols and Concepts

--download--

Exploration 3 : LAN Switching and Wireless

--download--

Exploration 4 : Accessing the WAN

--download--

3.1 CCNA 4 Voucher Exam Answers

2008-11-24T20:08:00.004+08:00

1
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
permits network address duplication
*allows for address flexibility
*prevents address replication
provides broadcast containment
adds low-level security
*allows for more network hosts available

2
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following are true regarding the route summary EIGRP would utilize for the networks on RouterA? (Choose two.)
The networks can be summarized with auto-summary.
*The network summary must be manually configured.
The default subnet mask can be used to summarize the networks.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/26.
*The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/27.
The networks can be summarized with 172.16.64.0/28.

3
Which address does a bridge use to build its bridging table?
destination IP address
*destination MAC address
source IP address
source MAC address

4
Which of the following do switches send at regular intervals to eliminate switching loops?
bi-directional protocol data units
binary protocol data units
*bridge protocol data units
buffered protocol data units

5
What is required to configure multiple DLCIs on a single router interface?
A single network address
Multiple LMIs
*Subinterfaces
Multiple IP addresses on the same subnet

6
Which component designates a device that is not compatible with ISDN and requires a terminal adapter?
NT1
*NT2
TE1
TE2

7
What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
*It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

8
What is the purpose of the show CDP neighbors command?
to send a summary of the local router configuration to all directly attached Cisco devices
*to display information about all Cisco devices that are directly connected to a local router
to display information about all Cisco networks in the WAN
to display addressing information about all remote routers
to display the names of all OSPF neighbors in the local area

9
Which type of ACL only checks the source address?
Extended ACL
General ACL
Source ACL
*Standard ACL

10
Which of the following improves security in PPP authentication?
LCP
NCP
*CHAP
PAP

11
For which condition will the ARP protocol be used?
The destination IP address is unknown.
*The destination MAC address is unknown.
The source IP address is unknown.
The source MAC address is unknown.

12
What is the name of that point in a LAN where the responsibility of the network administrator ends and the responsibility of the telco begins?
point of presence
local loop
DTE
*demarcation

13
What determines how much data a sending station running TCP/IP can transmit before it must receive an acknowledgment?
segment size
transmission rate
*bandwidth
window size
sequence number

14
Which utility can be used to verify connectivity through all seven layers of the OSI model?
netstat
ping
*Telnet
traceroute

15
Which statements about VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
VLANs are restricted to a physical segment.
*They are logical groupings of devices.
*User hosts can be grouped by function.
*VLANs are configured by software.
VLANs are standardized.

16
Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
*75.32.75.15
205.16.35.11
*199.254.129.111
*129.130.17.143
135.22.55.93
105.33.62.213

17
Which networking device performs path determination?
a hub
a switch
*a router
a bridge

18
Which device allows data communication to occur between VLANs?
bridge
hub
switch
*router

19
Which method does a router use to build a Frame Relay map?
ARP requests
RARP requests
Inverse RARP requests
*Inverse ARP requests

20
Routers and switches both perform important tasks in an internetwork. Which of the following are distinguishing differences between them? (Choose two.)
Routers are used more than switches.
Routers need no configuration to operate.
*Routers and switches operate at different layers of the OSI model.
Routers and switches route different sets of protocols.
*Routers block broadcasts.
Switches create broadcast domains.

21
By default, which of the following metrics is given the most weight by IGRP?
*bandwidth
hop count
load
reliability

22
Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols?
*A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routed protocol.
Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

23
What does the ISDN BRI provide?
23 B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
total bit rate up to 1.536 Mbps
two 56 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel

24
Which of the following EIGRP functions is the responsibility of the IP protocol-dependent module (PDM)? (Choose three.)
the calculation of successor and feasible successor routes for IP and IPX traffic
*the notification of DUAL when IP routing information is received
the communication of information about IP routes with neighbor routers
the maintenance of the IP routing table
*the exchange of hello packets with other IP-enabled routers
*the insertion of lowest cost paths into the routing table

25
Which of the following are functions of a WAN? (Choose three.)
*permit real-time communication between users
allow users access to high bandwidth
provide full-time local service
*provide e-mail and e-commerce services
connect physically adjacent devices
*provide access to computers in other locations

26
Which command will display statistics for all interfaces configured on a router?
list interfaces
*show interfaces
show processes
show statistics

27
What enables routers to learn of destination networks?
proxy ARP
CAM table exchanges
host name tables
*routing protocols
DNS lookups

28
Which type of handshaking occurs when using CHAP?
one-way
two-way
*three-way
four-way

29
Which statement describes the store and forward transmission mode of an Ethernet switch?
It is also referred to as a hybrid mode or as error sensing mode.
It requires the switch to read the first 64 bytes of an Ethernet frame and then begins to forward the data.
It decreases the latency of the transmission but has very little error detection.
*It increases latency with large frames, but error detection is high.

30
When must data be sent by way of the default route?
The destination network is on a different network than the source.
The destination network is not directly connected to the router.
The destination network is a stub network.
*There is no entry in the routing table for the destination network.

31
Which statements describe the use of Link State Advertisements (LSA)? (Choose two.)
*LSAs are generated when changes in the network occur.
Link state advertisements are refreshed every 60 minutes.
The router copies the information received from each LSA packet into the routing table.
*Routers exchange LSAs to build and maintain topology databases.
Forwarding LSAs can increase the occurrence of routing loops.

32
Identify the correct pairing of a protocol and its classification.
BGP-Interior
IGRP-Exterior
OSPF-Exterior
*RIP-Interior

33
Which of the following is the ISDN Layer 2 signaling protocol?
BRI
P
LAPA

*LAPD

34
What transmission channels are provided by an ISDN BRI service?
23 64 kbps B channels and one 64 kbps D channel
30 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 56 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
*two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
two 64 kbps D channels and one 16 kbps B channel
23 64 kbps D channels and one 64 kbps B channel

35
The switches in the graphic are configured for VTP as shown. Select the statements that correctly describe the operation of these switches. (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
*A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
*An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.

36
What is the default ISDN encapsulation used on Cisco ISDN routers?
SLIP
PPP
*HDLC
VPP

37
Which of the following represents a group of routers under a common administration and is required when configuring routing protocols such as IGRP or EIGRP?
control group
*autonomous system
corporate system
Domain Name System
local-area network
wide-area network

38
Given a router that has already been configured, what is the correct loading sequence when powering on?
bootstrap, RAM, operating system
bootstrap, configuration file, operating system
*bootstrap, operating system, configuration file
operating system, configuration file, RAM

39
Which of the following are routed protocols?
AppleTalk, IP, IGRP
*IP, AppleTalk, IPX
IP, RIP, IPX
IPX, OSPF, EIGRP

40
Which functions are carried out by switches and bridges when building the CAM tables? (Choose three.)
builds the table using unknown source MAC addresses from received frames
builds the table using unknown destination MAC addresses from received frames
*time stamps the entries for each address
*time stamps the BPDU of each frame received
*maps switch port numbers with the associated MAC address
maps switch port numbers with the associated network address

41
All the routers in the network shown in the graphic are part of the same OSPF area. All the routers were powered up simultaneously, except Router E, which was brought online the following day. Which router will be the BDR after the network has converged?
Router A
Router B
Router C
Router D
*Router E

42
Which reason is correct for having at least one true condition in an ACL?
If there is not a true statement, all packets are returned to the sender.
*The implicit "deny any" statement will deny all traffic.
True conditions only test the status of the router.
You are not required to have a true statement in ACL.

43
Which layer is responsible for organizing bits using framing?
Layer 1
*Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

44
What is the purpose of the IOS enable secret command?
*to set password protection on incoming Telnet sessions
to set password protection on the console terminal
to allow a user access to User mode
to allow a user to enter a password that will be encrypted

45
What reduces the problems of routing loops due to incorrect updates?
count to infinity
distance vector timers
event-triggered updates
*split horizon

46
Which of the following is true regarding routing metrics?
All routing protocols use the same metrics.
IGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
*Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
The larger metric generally represents the better path.

47
Which of the following messages are sent from a DHCP server to a client during a successful configuration process? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
*DHCPOFFER
*DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK

48
What are the effects of LAN segmentation using a switch? (Choose three.)
*dedicated bandwidth between source and destinations
*enlarged collision domains
decreased broadcast domains
*increased number of collision domains
increased latency in the network

49
The Cake router shown in the graphic has multiple RIP version 2 paths to the network attached to E0 of the Pie router. Which interface on the Cake router will be used to forward a packet from the 192.168.5.0 network to the 192.168.13.0 network?
E0
*E1
S0
S1
It will load balance across S0 and S1.
It will load balance across S0, S1 and E1.

50
What is true about windowing?
It always requires separate acknowledgements for each segment sent.
*It controls the amount of data that can be sent before acknowledgement is required.
It requires the sender to re-establish a connection if no acknowledgement is received.
It allows TCP/IP to measure transmitted data in segments.

51
Company XYZ has a Class B address of 135.166.0.0 and currently has 4 individual segments to subnet. The company will be adding 5 additional segments over this year and 7 additional networks the following year. What subnet mask should be used on the network in order to support the largest number of hosts per subnet?
255.255.224.0
*255.255.240.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.250.0
255.255.252.0

52
Which of the following is true regarding latency?
CSMA/CD requires no latency.
It is also called asymmetry.
It is based entirely on distance.
*Networking devices add to latency.

53
What is the length, in bits, of an Ethernet address?
12
24
32
*48
80
128

54
How many bits are in IPv6 addresses?
16
32
64
96
*128
258

55
If the above network has been configured with RIPv2, how many usable host addresses are in the 192.168.10.192 subnet?
0
*2
4
6
8

56
Which methods do frame relay switches use to inform DTEs of congestion within the frame relay network?
CCP and LMI
CIR and LATE
DLCI and SPID
*FECN and BECN

57
What is the term for the cabling that connects the customer premises equipment to the CO switch?
demarc
local loop
final mile
*DTE
trunk line

58
An administrator has an older 1900 switch located on the edge of the network. What can the network administrator do to ensure that it does not become the root bridge of the spanning-tree network?
decrease the BPDU hello timer update on the 1900
assign the highest IP address to the switch that should be the root
assign the lowest IP address to new root bridge
*assign the lowest priority to the switch that should be the root
assign the highest priority to the new root bridge
decrease the BID on the 1900 switch

59
How is the number 225 represented in binary?
11001111
11011011
11110011
*11100001

60
What is the function of the first phase of PPP negotiation?
link termination
authentication of communicating peers
*link establishment and configuration
network layer protocol configuration

3.1 CCNA 4 Final Answers

2008-11-24T20:04:00.003+08:00

1

Refer to the exhibit. The link between the RTR-1 and RTR-2 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Although the show interfaces command shows the interface status as Serial0 is up, line protocol is up, IP traffic is not crossing this link. What is the problem?
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
• Interface serial 0/0 on RTR-1 must connect to interface serial 0/1 on RTR-2.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.

2 Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
• ITU-T Q.931
• ITU-T I.430
• ITU-T I.431

3 An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
• remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
• disable inverse ARP

4 A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?

• use PPP multilink
• lower idle timer setting
• use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

5

Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
• RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

6 What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
• DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
• broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
• active indicates that the ARP process is working.

7

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the Denver router has determined that the DHCP clients on the network are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely problem?
• The DHCP server service is not enabled.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
• The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
• All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8 What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• create a full-mesh topology
• disable Inverse ARP
• use point-to-point subinterfaces
• use multipoint subinterfaces
• remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

9

What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
• defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

10 Which scenarios present possible reasons for using the frame-relay map command when configuring a Frame Relay connection? (Choose two.)
• when dynamic mapping of DLCIs to IP addresses is not supported by the remote router
• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

11 While testing a new network design in the lab, a network administrator is configuring a serial link that connects two routers back-to-back. In order to finish the configuration, the administrator needs to identify which router is connected to the DCE end of the cable. What command can be issued to provide this information?
• router# show status serial 0/0
• router# show controllers serial 0/0
• router# show protocols serial 0/0
• router# show version
• router# show interfaces serial 0/0

12 Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
• The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
• The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
• The point is located between the customer's local area networks.

13

A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

What should the administrator do to solve the problem?

• Add a clock rate on RouterA.
• Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
• Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

14 When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

15

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is checking the status of router RTR_2. What is the most likely reason for the current status of the serial link to RTR_1?
• A cable has become disconnected.
• The circuit is experiencing excessive RFI.
• Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
• The routers are configured for different WAN encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on one of the routers.

16 What are two of the steps required to configure a router to connect over ISDN BRI? (Choose two.)
• Configure the interface with a DLCI.
• Configure the SPIDs, if required by the ISDN switch.
• Specify the the LMI type to be compatible with the CO switch.
• Set the interface encapsulation to the Cisco or IETF frame type.
• Configure a subinterface for each B channel.
• Set the switch type to work with the ISDN switch at the CO.

17 What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
• CIR
• DE
• DLCI
• ISDN
• FRAD
• PVC

18 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

19

Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay point-to-point PVC. The ILM-5 router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco ILM-3 router and router ILM-5?
• ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc multipoint
• ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ietf
• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type ansi
• ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc point-to-point

20 The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
• There is no clock present on the serial interface.
• The interface is shut down.
• RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.

21 After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
• PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
• The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
• No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

22 When configuring a Frame Relay network with subinterfaces, which commands are configured on the subinterface? (Choose three.)
• frame-relay interface-dlci
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
• ip address
• frame-relay map
• switch type

23 Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?

1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made

• 1,2,3,4
• 1,3,2,4
• 2,3,1,4
• 2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
• 3,1,2,4

24 A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this output?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.

25

The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session
• The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

26 Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
• NAT with DHCP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC with encryption
• HDLC with CHAP
• PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP

27

Refer to the exhibit. Which statements describe why the workstation with the IP address 192.168.89.99 cannot access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The NAT inside interface is not configured properly.
• The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.99/28 to access the Internet.
• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.

28 After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
• show dialer
• show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
• show interfaces serial0/0.1

29 How are the settings for ISDN switch type and SPIDs determined for a BRI interface configuration?
• assigned by the network administrator
• randomly, so long as they are not duplicated on the network
• by trial and error
• dynamically via Inverse ARP
• assigned by IANA
• assigned by the service provider

30 A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
• HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
• Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
• The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
• There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

31

A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
• There is not a route to the remote router.
• The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
• The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

32 A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
• Install and configure a PRI.
• Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
• Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
• Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

33 Which IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 172.55.16.0.16
• 172.17.0.0/16
• 224.200.175.0/24
• 192.168.168.0/22
• 10.88.179.0/29
• 17.250.0.0/16

34 Which of the following statements are correct regarding PAT? (Choose two.)
• PAT is the best method to provide consistent global addresses for network servers.
• PAT can only be configured to use one IP address, which is usually the IP address of the serial interface of the router.
• PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside local IP address to distinguish between translations.
• PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside global IP address to distinguish between translations.
• When PAT is configured to use a pool of IP addresses and exhausts the ports of the first IP address, the router will move to the next available IP address.

35 Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
• X.25
• DSL
• ISDN
• cable modem

36 Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
• authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
• authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
• network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
• network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
• link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

37 What causes a DDR call to be placed?
• dial string
• DLCI
• idle time out
• interesting traffic
• PVC

38 A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for 25 hosts at an insurance agency. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this company. What can the administrator do to provide Internet access to all 25 users at the same time?
• Configure the router with dynamic NAT with PAT.
• Configure the router with dynamic NAT for 25 users.
• Configure the router with DHCP and static NAT.
• Configure the router with static NAT for all 25 users.
• This cannot be done with only two public addresses.

39

A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between the Central office and three remote sites: East Branch, West Branch, and Remote. The East Branch and West Branch offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Remote office is staffed by one salesperson who travels through the northwestern territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect these sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect the East Branch and West Branch remote offices with ISDN connections.
• Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with Frame Relay connections.
• Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with POTS dial-up connections.
• Connect the Remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect the Remote office with an ISDN connection.
• Connect the Remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

40 A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)

• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
• A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
• A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
• An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

3.1 CCNA 4 Module 6 Answers

2008-11-24T20:02:00.002+08:00

1

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will the ACL have on network traffic?
• All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 will be denied.
• All TCP traffic will be permitted to and from network 172.16.0.0.
• All telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination will be denied.
• All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied.
• All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied to any other network.

2 Which statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

3 Choose the commands that will correctly configure a standard ACL. (Choose two.)
• Router(config)# access-list 97 permit host 192.5.5.1
• Router(config)# access-list 32 permit 210.93.105.3 0.0.0.0
• Router(config)# access-list 148 permit 201.100.11.2 0.0.0.0
• Router(config)# access-list 107 permit host 192.5.5.1 213.45.27.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit tcp 192.5.5.1 0.0.0.255 201.100.11.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80

4 Select the statements that describe ACL processing of packets. (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

5 Which of the following are reasons to use ACLs? (Choose three.)
• to provide a basic level of security for network access
• to speed up network performance by filtering priority packets
• to preserve bandwidth by providing a mechanism for traffic flow control
• to decide which packets are forwarded or blocked at the router console port
• to screen certain hosts to either allow or deny access to part of a network
• to allow all packets passing through the router access to all parts of the network

6 Choose the command that will correctly configure a standard ACL.
• Router# access-list 10 permit any
• Router# access-list 101 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 101 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any any

Select the commands that will apply the ACL in the diagram to filter traffic going to the 192.168.2.0 network.

• Router1# configure terminal

Router1(config)# access-list 10 in E0

• outer1(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router1(config-if)# access-list 10 in

• Router2(config)# interface s1
Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router2(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router1(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router2# configure terminal
Router2(config)# access-group 10 out

8

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will this ACL have on network traffic?
• Host 192.168.15.4 will be denied ftp access to any destination, but will be permitted all other access.
• All ftp traffic to host 192.168.15.4 will be denied.
• All traffic from that interface will be denied.
• No traffic will be denied because a "permit" statement does not exist in this ACL.

9

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has connectivity to the routers and networks in the diagram. An ACL has been created to allow the network administrator FTP access to the webserver. This ACL must also deny FTP access to the server from the rest of the hosts on the LAN. Which interface in the exhibit is the recommended location to apply the ACL?
• FastEthernet 0/0 on the Carlisle router
• Serial 0/0 on the Carlisle router
• Serial 0/1 on the Mt. Holly router
• FastEthernet 0/0 on the Mt. Holly router

10 Select the correct statements about extended ACLs. (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

11 The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24

Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

What can be concluded about this set of commands?

• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on 172.16.0.0 will be denied access when these statements are applied.
• The default wildcard mask, 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The default wildcard mask 255.255.255.255 is assumed.

12 Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port

13 A router that has two Ethernet interfaces and one serial interface is configured to route both IP and IPX. What is the maximum number of IP ACLs that can be configured to filter packets on this router?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 6
• 12

14 Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

• The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
• The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
• A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.
• A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

15 ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is true, the rest of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens to the packet?
• The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed.
• The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message.
• The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the packets to flow through uninhibited.
• The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the packets to be dropped.

16 Which of the following matches an ACL identification number with the correct protocol?(Choose three.)

• 0 - standard IP
• 99 - standard IP
• 100 - extended IP
• 210 - extended IP
• 678 - extended IPX
• 888 - standard IPX

17 The router IOS tests each condition statement in an ACL in sequence. Once a match is made, which of the following occurs? (Choose two.)
• The entire ACL must be deleted and recreated.
• The accept or reject action is performed.
• The packet is forwarded to the next hop.
• The remaining ACL statements are not checked.
• The router goes through the list again to verify that a match has been made.

18

Create a standard ACL that will deny traffic from 192.5.5.25 to the 210.93.105.0 network but will allow traffic from all other hosts. (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any any

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.0 0.0.0.255
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

19 Which of the following parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface

3.1 CCNA 4 Module 5 Answers

2008-11-24T19:59:00.003+08:00

1 How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

2 Which statement identifies a reason for using point-to-point subinterfaces in Frame Relay networks?
• Subinterfaces overcome routing update and split-horizon issues that occur with multipoint logical interfaces on a single physical interface.
• A point-to-point subinterface does not require an IP address and therefore saves address space.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces provide greater reliability and reachability in Frame Relay networks by requiring a mesh topology for network configurations.
• Point-to-point subinterfaces increase the number of DLCIs that can be configured in a Frame Relay network.

3

A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225

4 Which data link layer protocol is used to carry frames across a Frame Relay link?
• PPP
• LAPD
• LAPF
• Frame Relay

5 Which bits are set in the data frames to request that a device reduce the flow of data sent to or from a Frame Relay switch?

• EIR bits
• ECN bits
• CIR bits
• DE bits
• Window bits

6 Why are full mesh topologies seldom found in large Frame Relay networks?
• Additional hardware is required to achieve the mesh.
• The additional virtual circuits slow the link access speeds.
• The required number of links becomes prohibitive.
• Additional interfaces are required since each can only support 10 virtual circuits.
• The speed of transmission slows in inverse proportion to the square of the number of links.

7 Which of the following occurs when the command frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 22 is configured on the router? (Choose two.)
• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
• The remote circuit with DLCI 22 can receive a ping.
• Inverse-ARP will be used to add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the frame-relay map table using DLCI 22.
• Pings to 10.1.1.1 will be sent on the circuit labeled DLCI 22.
• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.

8 Why is the keepalive mechanism added as an extension to the Local Management Interface in a Frame Relay network?

• to identify which routers were experiencing congestion
• to verify the status of PVCs in the Frame Relay network
• to dynamically map a MAC address to an IP address in a Frame Relay network
• to signal to the router the status of the routing protocols configured in the Frame Relay network

9 Which of the following statements are true about a basic Frame Relay WAN connection between a customer and the service provider? (Choose two.)

• DTE devices such as routers and FRADs transmit user data.
• DTE devices such as Frame Relay switches transport the data between DTE devices.
• An Ethernet connection between the router and the frame relay switch allow access to the frame relay network.
• Serial connections between the customer and the frame relay network are used to transport data.
• The Frame Relay WAN is a mesh of interconnected routers.

10 What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

• switched parallel circuit
• permanent virtual circuit
• limited access circuit
• ISDN circuit
• Frame Relay circuit

11 Which features make Frame Relay technology a cost-effective alternative to a mesh of dedicated leased lines? (Choose three.)
• allows a single interface to support multiple PVCs
• minimizes the equipment required to be purchased by the customer
• requires one router interface for each PVC
• provides the customer with redundancy if a single interface goes down
• allows the customer to pay for the average bandwidth requirement rather than the maximum bandwidth requirement

12 Which of the following allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Inverse ARP
• LMI status messages
• ICMP

When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

14

Which commands were added to the configuration to produce the output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• Router(config)# ip route 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 17 broadcast
• Router(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type cisco 17
• Router(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 192.168.192.4 17 broadcast
• Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 DLCI 17 static
• Router(config-if)# interface S0/0.1 point-to-point
• Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco

15 What does a DLCI of 1023 indicate about a frame?

• The LMI type is ANSI.
• The LMI type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Cisco.
• The LMI type is Q933a.
• The encapsulation is Cisco.
• The encapsulation is IETF.

16 Which methods are used to minimize heavy traffic on a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• FRADs or routers set ECN bits to request that the Frame Relay switch reduce the flow of frames on the link.
• Windowing is used to reduce the size of the frames sent across the link.
• The Frame Relay switch will drop packets that have the DE bit set.
• When a switch sees its queue increasing, it notifies DTEs to reduce the flow of traffic.
• When congestion occurs, all frames are dropped until the congestion clears.

17

When troubleshooting a frame relay connection, a technician entered the show frame-relay pvc command shown in the graphic. What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• The output in the debug frame-relay lmi command will indicate status 0x2 for DLCI 18.
• DLCI 16 was correctly programmed on the switch, but the remote router may be misconfigured.
• The frame relay switch is sending LMI status messages about DLCI 16 to the Singapore router.
• Congestion has been experienced on DLCI 18.
• Some packets have been set to be dropped if congestion is experienced on the PVC.

18 Which of the following DLCIs are reserved?
• 16
• 127
• 255
• 1023
• 2048

19 Which of the following statements regarding multipoint subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)

• A single multipoint subinterface is used to establish PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces on remote routers.
• Each multipoint link is in its own subnet.
• The physical interface does not have an IP address.
• Split-horizon is disabled allowing routing updates to be re-transmitted on every subinterface.
• Multipoint subinterfaces require the encapsulation frame-relay command to be issued individually for each subinterface to operate correctly.

20 How is a permanent virtual circuit identified in a Frame Relay network that is carrying IP traffic?
• It is given a fixed locally significant identification number.
• It is identified by the MAC address of the router interface.
• Dynamic virtual channel identifiers are assigned to each frame transmitted across the network.
• It is identifed by the MAC address of the switch port.

21 What is the purpose of the FCS field in a Frame Relay frame?

• It serves to distinguish one frame from the next.
• It is used to signal network congestion.
• It is used to detect if the frame has been corrupted and should be discarded.
• It determines which VC should be used for transmission.

3.1 CCNA 4 Module 4 Answers

2008-11-24T19:52:00.003+08:00

1 A network administrator in Europe has been asked to provide the network with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with an S/T interface. What further equipment will be provided by the ISDN service provider for the ISDN connection?
• Nothing. The router is already suitable.
• BRI WAN interface card to install in the router
• an external NT1 to terminate the local loop
• a TA/NT1 device to install on the router

2 Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type?
• Switches use various implementations of Q.931.
• The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch.
• The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with.
• The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized.

3 A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the problem lies with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view the authentication process between the router and the ISDN switch?
• debug pap authentication
• debug chap authentication
• debug ppp authentication
• debug isdn authentication

4 Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection?
• Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}
• Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port}
• Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1
• Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1

5

The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering the commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN connection does not open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's configuration, what is a possible cause of the problem?
• The dialer map is configured incorrectly.
• The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly.
• The dialer group is configured incorrectly.
• The ACL is configured incorrectly.
• The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.

6 Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
• Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
• Logical Link Control
• Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
• Binary Synchronous Control protocol

7

A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up?
• show isdn status
• show isdn active
• show dialer
• show interface bri0/0
• debug isdn active

8 Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that used on other interfaces on the router?
• Router(config)#switch-type switch-type
• Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type
• Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type
• Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type

9 Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations?
• ISDN switch type
• line encoding technique
• line framing method
• local directory number
• service profile identifier

10 You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U" interface? Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN network?
• An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity.
• An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.
• The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network.
• The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity.

11 What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.)
• ISDN switch type
• Service Profile Identifier (SPID)
• Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)
• PRI group time slot
• T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding

12

A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining they cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection attempt is timing out before a connection can be established. What command would the network administrator use to determine what the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to?
• show isdn status
• show isdn active
• show dialer
• show interfaces bri0/0
• debug isdn q931
• show ISDN interfaces

13 What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an ISDN interface?
• An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology.
• A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative distance.
• Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default.
• Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing.
• Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates.

14 Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.)
• selects the ISDN switch type
• identifies the line configuration of the BRI service
• allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop
• designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2
• allows ISDN broadcasts

15 Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information, including the called number?
• show isdn status
• show isdn active
• show interfaces bri0/0
• show ip interfaces

16 Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose two.)
• They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic.
• Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.
• Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.
• They use PPP only.
• They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol.

17 Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.)
• two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
• B channel is suitable for voice data
• uses in-band signaling
• uses out-of-band signaling
• offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection
• twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel

18 Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling?
• using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission
• transmitting data over a control channel
• using a separate channel for control signals
• transmitting control signals over a data channel

3.1 CCNA 4 Module 3 Answers

2008-11-24T19:49:00.003+08:00

1

Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been established?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

2 A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)
• interface missing the no shutdown command
• clockrate command missing
• CSU/DSU failed
• interface shutdown due to high error rate
• cable missing

3 A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly?
• show controllers
• show processes
• show run
• show status

4 A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?
• Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway
• Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress
• Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress
• Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress
• Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway
• Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress

5 Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?
• ppp link 50
• ppp link quality 60
• ppp percentage 80
• ppp quality 90

6 When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command. The following was the output of the command:

Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.

What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)

• Serial0z0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• The interface is neither DCE or DTE.
• The interface hardware may be faulty.
• The cabling may be improperly connected.

7 Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?
• to establish a PPP session
• to provide error checking on a WAN link
• to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links
• to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router

8 Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?
• configure each host with a PPP address
• configure authentication between the two routers
• send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters
• send hostname and password information between the two routers

9 Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)
• HDLC provides flow and error control.
• Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.
• HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.
• HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.
• Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.

10 Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?
• MD5
• CHAP
• PAP
• NCP

11 ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance across both links?
• Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2
• Router(config-if)# ip variance
• Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2
• Router(config-if)# ppp multilink

12 PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)
• testing the quality of the link
• routing packets between devices
• assigning individual station addresses
• configuring network layer protocols
• negotiating authentication options

13 How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols?
• split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol
• identified the protocol in the FCS field
• compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol
• added a type field to identify the protocol

14 Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data? (Choose two.)
• It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.
• Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
• Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
• TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.

15

What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• A two-way handshake is occuring.
• The LCPs were already negotiated.
• The router can begin NCP negotiations.
• The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.
• The debug ppp authentication command was executed.

16

Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?
• show ppp traffic
• show lcp traffic
• debug ppp negotiation
• debug ppp authentication

17 How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)
• uses a one-way hash function
• authentication occurs more rapidly
• challenges are unique
• the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge
the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge

18 What are three features of the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verify identity
• sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
• initiates a two-way handshake

19 Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

20 Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?
• Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.
• Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.
• More than one authentication method can be used.
• More than one compression protocol can be configured.

3.1 CCNA 4 Module 2 Answers

2008-11-24T19:35:00.002+08:00

1 Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?
• ISDN
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU

2 Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN service provider?
• CPE
• CO
• local loop
• DCE
• DTE

3 On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?
• IP
• PPP
• HDLC
• SLIP
• HSSI
• CSU

4 A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
• ATM
• ISDN
• analog dialup
• T1 Leased Line

5 A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• X.25
• analog dialup

6 Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer? (Choose two.)
• Each packet carries an identifier.
• Each packet carries full addressing information.
• Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.
• Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.
• The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous copper circuit.

7 Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for large businesses?
• BRI
• PRI
• DLCI
• PSTN
• POTS

8 A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails. What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?
• X.25
• DSL
• ISDN
• cable modem
• 56 kbps

9 Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)
• DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.
• DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.
• DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.
• DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.
• For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).
• DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to strong security.

10 A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?
• ATM
• X.25
• Frame Relay
• Leased lines

11 Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?
• Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM.
• Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.
• WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.
• WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.

12 Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN design?
• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
• to determine the WAN topology
• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
• to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

13 Which of the following is true of WANs?
• Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less latency and jitter than dedicated lines.
• ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.
• The more network devices that data has to pass through across the WAN, the more latency and less reliability the network will experience.
• WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.

14 Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)
• uses only PVCs
• is useful for video transfers
• has data rates beyond 155 Mbps
• cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead
• mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection

15 Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a WAN technology?
• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
• to determine the WAN topology
• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
• to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

16 A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at least five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have as many as 20 offices. The branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the main office. Which design model is best for WAN connectivity in this situation?
• a mesh network of all branch WANs
• a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces
• a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs
• a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN

3.1 CCNA 4 Module 1 Answers

2008-11-24T19:30:00.003+08:00

1

Which of the following can be done to allow the users on the 10.0.0.0 network to communicate with the Web Server shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• Configure the Miami router to use NAT.
• Configure the Web Server with a private address.
• Configure the Miami router to use PAT.
• Change the Internet link IP address of 128.56.0.0 to a private address.
• Configure the Tampa router to use PAT.

2 A company was issued 207.48.12.8/29 as its registered address from its ISP. Which of the following is a solution that will allow Internet access to 300 employees simultaneously?
• VLSM to further subnet the registered address and create more IP addresses
• normal subnetting on the Class C network and address the host
• RFC 1918 and port address translation
• this is an impossible scenario because there are not enough addresses

3 What is the purpose of the DHCPDECLINE message?

• If the DHCP client received multiple DHCPOFFERs, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offers it does not use.
• If the DHCP server sends an IP configuration update that the DHCP client does not need, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the information.
• The DHCP server uses the DHCPDECLINE message to refuse a DHCP client's request for IP configuration information.
• If the DHCP client detects that the address supplied by the DHCP server is in use on the network, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offer.

4 Which configuration parameters are provided by the dynamic allocation process of DHCP? (Choose three.)
• Gateway address
• DNS server
• DHCP Server
• Subnet mask
• Key server
• ARP server

5

What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
• defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

6

Given the accompanying debug output from a Cisco router, what kind of address is 10.10.10.3 with the IP identification number of 29855?
• inside local
• inside global
• outside local
• outside global

7

Given the accompanying graphic, which statement would be applied to the S0 interface when configuring NAT on the Tampa router?
• ip nat inside
• ip nat outside
• ip pat inside
• ip pat outside

8

Given the accompanying graphic, which addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.125
• 179.9.8.95
• 179.9.8.98
• 179.9.8.101
• 179.9.8.112

9

Refer to the exhibit. Which command would establish a group of 30 IP addresses that could be used to hide inside addresses from the Internet?
• ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.224
• ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.240
• ip nat pool Raleigh 171.11.10.32 171.11.10.63 netmask 255.255.255.224
• ip nat pool Raleigh 171.11.10.32 171.11.10.63 netmask 255.255.255.240

10

Given the accompanying diagram, which commands are necessary to implement PAT on the Raleigh router? (Choose four.)
• access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
• access-list 10 permit 171.11.0.0 0.0.255.255
• ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.1 171.11.0.0
• ip nat inside source list 10 interface S0 overload
• ip nat outside
• ip nat inside

11 What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
• PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
• Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
• Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
• PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

12 Which of the following are broadcasts sent by a client to a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
• DHCPDISCOVER
• DHCPRELEASE
• DHCPACK
• DHCPREQUEST
• DHCPOFFER

13 In addition to assigning addresses from predefined pools, which other services can a DHCP server offer? (Choose three.)
• DNS server addresses
• domain names
• global IP assignments
• NAT translations
• WINS server addresses

14 Users are complaining that they cannot attach to network resources. A technician has confirmed that clients are not properly receiving IP configuration information through the DHCP process. The network administrator wants to watch the DHCP process while the technician tries to release and renew addresses on the clients. Which command would the network administrator use to monitor the process of address allocation?
• show ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
• debug ip dhcp binding

15

Refer to the graphic. Which command would allow the router to forward DHCP broadcasts from Host A to the DHCP server?
• ip helper-address
• dhcp helper-address
• dhcp relay-agent
• dhcp-relay

16 What is the default lease time for addresses assigned to clients through Easy IP?
• twenty-four hours
• forty-eight hours
• one week
• two weeks

17

The Raleigh router shown in the diagram is configured with PAT. Which of the following must be changed if the private network is migrated to a 10.0.0.0 network? (Choose two.)
• E0 interface address
• S0 interface address
• the access-list statement
• the NAT outside interface
• the NAT inside interface

18 A network administrator needs to configure a router to offer DHCP services. Assuming the router is operating with factory defaults and the IOS supports DHCP, what must be done to start the DHCP service?
• Use the global configuration command service dhcp.
• Use the privileged command service dhcp start.
• Use the start service dhcp command during the setup processes.
• Do nothing. The DHCP service is enabled by default during start up.

19 Which of the following traffic types are supported by Cisco IOS NAT? (Choose two.)
• Routing table updates
• ICMP
• FTP
• BOOTP
• SNMP

20 Which configuration information might a DHCPOFFER include? (Choose three.)
• IP address
• DNS server address
• DHCP binding
• Lease time
• DHCP database

21 A company was issued 207.48.12.8/29 as its registered address from its ISP. Which of the following is a solution that will allow Internet access to 300 employees simultaneously?
• VLSM to further subnet the registered address and create more IP addresses
• normal subnetting on the Class C network and address the host
• RFC 1918 and port address translation
• this is an impossible scenario because there are not enough addresses

22 What is the default number of pings issued by a DHCP server to a pool address before sending the DHCPOFFER to a client?
• one
• two
• three
• four
• five

3.1 CCNA 3 Final Answers

2008-11-24T19:28:00.003+08:00

1

Refer to the graphic. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router RT-5?
• 192.168.0.0/16
• 192.168.52.0/24
• 192.168.48.0/22
• 192.168.52.0/22
• 192.168.51.0/23
• 192.168.48.0/21

2

Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands is required to configure switch port Fa0/2 for host A?
• SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access 20
• SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access
SW-1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 20
• SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
SW-1(config-if)# vlan 20
• SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

3 Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
• access
• backbone
• distribution
• core

4 A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
• VLANs can only be deleted by the user who created them.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.
• The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.
• VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
• VLAN 1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.

5

Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will correctly configure router ABC to use OSPF?
• ABC(config)# router ospf 99
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 255.255.255.248 area 0
• ABC(config)# router ospf 1
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
• ABC(config)# router ospf 1
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
• ABC(config)# router ospf 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.248 0.0.0.3 area 0

6

Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across the different switches?
• trunking
• STP
• VTP
• routing

7 Which characteristics of RIPv1 are different from RIPv2? (Choose three.)
• its use of the hop count metric
• its use of broadcast updates
• its use of split horizon as a stability feature
• the authentication of updates
• its exclusively classful routing
• its hop count maximum of 15

8 Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?
• physical
• distribution
• data link
• access
• core

9 Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
• RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
• RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
• The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
• A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
• The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
• RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.

10 Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

11

Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?
• The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.
• The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
• The router is not configured for trunking.
• The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.

12 What is added to a bridge CAM table as a frame passes through a switch?
• source IP address
• destination IP address
• source MAC address
• destination MAC address

13

Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

14

Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
• A gateway of last resort is required.
• Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
• One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.

15

Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design?
• It maximizes the number of ports available for hosts.
• It provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure.
• It provides multiple paths for Layer 2 broadcasts to circulate through the network.
• It allows Spanning Tree to forward traffic across redundant paths simultaneously.

16

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose three.)
• R1 will be DR of the 192.168.4.0/24 network.
• R2 will be DR of the 192.168.4.0/24 network.
• R1 will be DR of the 192.168.5.0/24 network.
• R4 will be DR of the 192.168.5.0/24 network.
• R1 will be DR of the 192.168.6.0/24 network.
• R3 will be DR of the 192.168.6.0/24 network.

17 What are two advantages provided by OSPF authentication? (Choose two.)
• It ensures that routing information comes from a valid source router.
• It ensures that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or EIGRP updates.
• It encrypts routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing.
• It reduces OSPF information exchange overhead.
• It prevents routing information from being falsified in transit.

18

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F

19

Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?
• physical
• data link
• core
• access
• network
• distribution

20 A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?
• add additional hubs
• replace hubs with switches
• replace hubs with access points
• add a router to every hub segment

21 Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host
• requires a minimum of two wires
• reduces the number of collisions
• allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions
• allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions
• increases the number of broadcast domains

22 What does a constant green SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?
• The switch has passed POST and is working properly
• The switch has failed POST.
• The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
• The switch is going through POST.
• The switch is actively sending and receiving frames.

23

Refer to the exhibit. Which command will remove the static address from the MAC address table?
• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
• ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
• ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
• ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1

24

Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router REMO_2 has been elected DR, but router REMO_1 is the more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure REMO_1 to force it to be elected as DR?
• REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
REMO_1(config-if)# ospf priority 0
• REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0
• REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
• REMO_1(config)# ospf priority 1
• REMO_1(config)# ip ospf priority 255

25 What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?
• elect a designated switch
• use a router to locate a default gateway
• elect a root bridge
• determine the path cost of each active port on the switch

26 Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
• VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
• VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
• All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
• Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.

27

Refer to the graphic. The network has converged. Network traffic analysis indicates that switch A should be the STP root bridge. However, switch F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. The switches are all set to the default spanning-tree bridge priority value. How can the network administrator change the root bridge to switch A?
• Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 1.
• Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 65,565.
• Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 255.
• Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 32,768.

28 Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• They can support multiple routed protocols.
• They can support only link-state protocols.
• They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
• They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
• They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
• They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

29

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
• X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0

30

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from RT-2 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.0.2.0/27?
• RT-2(config)# ip route 172.16.127.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.224 serial 0/0
• RT-2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.224 serial 0/0
• RT-2(config)# ip route 172.16.127.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
• RT-2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1

31

Refer to the output in the exhibit. What is true about the configuration of this switch?
• Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN.
• VTP has been enabled for all ports.
• ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on the PROD VLAN.
• Hosts in the ACCT and ENGR VLANs must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order to exchange data between VLANs.

32

Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?
• highest Layer 2 address
• highest priority number
• highest path cost
• lowest Layer 2 address
• lowest priority number
• lowest path cost

33 When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
• when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
• when a router has more than three active interfaces
• when a router has discontiguous networks attached
• when a router has less than five active interfaces

34

Refer to the exhibit. If the network is running RIP v2, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between RTR-2 and the two other routers?
• 198.19.23.192/30 and 198.19.23.196/30
• 198.19.23.160/30 and 198.19.23.164/30
• 198.19.23.96/30 and 198.19.23.100/30
• 198.19.23.32/30 and 198.19.23.160/30
• 198.19.23.4/30 and 198.19.23.8/30

35 Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?
• cut-through
• fast-forward
• fragment-free
• store-and-forward

36 What are two advantages of adding switches to a network that has no VLANs configured? (Choose two.)
• Switches help eliminate collision domains.
• Switches create permanent virtual communication circuits.
• Switches allow bandwidth to be fully utilized.
• Switches decrease network throughput.
• Switches shrink the size of broadcast domains.

37

Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at the Branch1 site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Central office. Which command can be used to gain remote access to the Central LAN switch, assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 192.168.10.238/24?

• Branch1# dial Central 192.168.10.238
• Branch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Branch1(config-line)# telnet
• Branch1# telnet Central
• Branch1# telnet 192.168.10.238

38

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switch, how many broadcast domains are there?
• one
• two
• three
• four
• five
• six

39

Refer to the exhibit. How should an administrator configure the ports on switches ACC-1 and ACC-2 to allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate across the two switches?
• as trunks
• as access ports
• as channels
• as inter-VLAN ports
• as bridge ports

40

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands should be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
• R_1(config)# interface vlan 30
R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40
R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
• R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R_1(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 30 40
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• R_1(config)# interface vlan 30
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.30.1 255.255.255.0
R_1(config-if)# no shutdown
R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.40.1 255.255.255.0
R_1(config-if)# no shutdown
• R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R_1(config-if)# no shutdown
R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 30
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.30.1 255.255.255.0
R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.4
R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 40
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.40.1 255.255.255.0

41

The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on SW_1. The administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch SW_2. What must be done so that the administrator can access SW_2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
• Set the password on the management VLAN.
• Establish connectivity of the host to SW_2.
• Configure IP addressing parameters on SW_2.
• Configure the hostname on SW_2.
• Activate the HTTP service on SW_2.

42 How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
• by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
• by comparing known routes to information received in updates
• by exchanging of hello packets with neighboring routers
• by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
• by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

43 What are three attributes of distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three.)
• Hello packets are used to form neighbor adjacencies.
• Each router sends its entire routing table in routing updates.
• Periodic updates are sent to neighboring routers.
• Distance vector protocols converge more rapidly than link-state protocols do.
• Because of their frequent periodic updates, distance vector protocols after convergence use more bandwidth than link-state protocols do.
• Distance vector protocols are less prone to routing loops than are link-state protocols.

44

Refer to the exhibit. Routers RT-1 and RT-3 are completely configured. The administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which group of commands will successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2?
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.63 area 0
• RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192

45

Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

46 The following command was added to a router configuration:

ip route 198.19.150.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.249

What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.)

• It will create a static route to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.
• It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 192.0.2.249 as the next hop.
• All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.
• Information about the 198.19.150.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as this configuration command is in effect.
• The route will be marked with an "R" in the routing table.

3.1 CCNA 3 Practice Answers

2008-11-24T19:24:00.005+08:00

1
If EIGRP routing is employed and the successor route to a destination becomes unreachable or unreliable, which of the following would be used as a replacement?
the route flagged as active in the topology table
*the feasible successor route in the topology table
the default gateway in the neighbor table
the primary designated route in the topology table
the backup designated router in the routing table

2
Which VLAN implementation method requires less administration in the wiring closet and can provide notification if an unauthorized user attempts to connect to the network?
port-centric
static
*dynamic
geographic

3
What does the router shown in the graphic provide to the network? (Choose three.)
*forwarding of packets between VLANs
forwarding of broadcast frames between VLANs
*improved efficiency in bandwidth utilization
*connectivity of local hosts with remote resources
elimination of VLAN configuration errors
prevention of switching loops

4
Which of the following are layers in the hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)
gateway
*access
*distribution
network
*core
domain

5
What is required for OSPF routers to share routing information?
designated routers
a backup designated router
*neighbor adjacencies
an NBMA network topology
links configured on the 224.0.0.0 network

6
Which of the following statements describe trunking? (Choose two.)
*Trunking bundles multiple virtual links over one physical link.
Trunking decreases the number of switch ports available for hosts.
Trunking complicates the physical interconnection of switches in the wiring closet.
*Trunks can be configured to carry traffic for several VLANs between switches.
Trunking requires one switch port for each configured VLAN.

7
The network 192.1.1.0 has been subnetted for a network design. The 192.1.1.16/28 subnet has been chosen for further subnetting to provide for point-to-point serial link addressing. How many serial link subnets can be created while minimizing the number of wasted addresses?
1
2
*4
6
8
16

8
The spanning tree election process has taken place on a network containing five bridges. How many total root bridges have been elected?
*1
3
5
one per trunk port

9
In which STP state does a switch port only receive BPDUs?
*blocking
learning
disabled
listening
forwarding

10
Which command is used to copy a backup configuration file from a server to the non-volatile memory of a switch?
Switch# copy startup-config tftp
*Switch# copy tftp startup-config
Switch# copy NVRAM tftp
Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
Switch# copy tftp flash

11
Which of the switches shown in the graphic will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
*Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D

12
Under which of the following circumstances might two routers have trouble establishing a neighbor relationship in an OSPF network? (Choose three.)
*Hello packets are not sent from either neighbor.
*The interfaces are on different network types.
The network command has put the connected interfaces into the same OSPF area.
Slow network connections cause OSPF advertisements to time out.
*Authentication passwords or keys are different.

13
Which of the following are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
*collection of routing information from within a defined area of the network
*view of network from neighbor's perspective
*independent calculation of best paths to all destinations
propagation of incorrect information minimized
demonstration of universal compatibility and simplicity

14
What is the minimum amount of bandwidth that Layer 2 LAN switches should provide to servers?
1 Mbps
10 Mbps
*100 Mbps
1000 Mbps
1 Gbps

15
A new color laser printer has been configured on the Marketing VLAN. Users on the Sales VLAN would also like to have access to this printer. What must be done in order for the Sales department users to be able to access this device?
A root bridge must be elected to allow the traffic to cross.
A bridge must be configured with a compatible bridging protocol.
*A router must be installed and configured to connect the VLANs.
No traffic should be allowed to pass between VLANs.
The print server must be configured to accept connections over VTP.

16
Which of the following is the metric that OSPF uses to determine the best route to a destination network?
administrative distance
*cost
hop count
link delay

17
What is required for full-duplex Ethernet transmissions?
one pair of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node
two pairs of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node
*two pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node
four pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node

18
What affects network availability? (Choose three.)
location
*throughput
user proficiency
*response time
workstation speed
*access to resources

19
How does an Ethernet switch improve network performance? (Choose three.)
*allows multiple frames to be forwarded simultaneously
decreases the number of broadcast domains
increases network latency
eliminates unnecessary broadcast frames
*reduces the size of collision domains
*increases the number of collision domains

20
Which type of address does OSPF use to initiate new adjacencies and to ensure that neighbor routers are functioning?
broadcast
loopback
*multicast
unicast

21
What problems can occur on a redundant switched network? (Choose three.)
*A destination device may receive a frame more than once.
*The switch may learn an incorrect MAC address-to-port mapping.
*Broadcast storms may make the network appear down.
A frame may be dropped before reaching its destination.
The network may not converge.

22
A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required by Router C, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
/27
*/26

23
When the mode LED on a Cisco switch is set to STAT, what port status is indicated by a green flashing port LED?
no link
port is not forwarding
*port is sending or receiving data
port is sending, but not receiving
link fault

24
How many collision domains will there be in the entire network shown in the graphic if Hub1 is replaced with a Layer 2 switch?
2
3
*4
7
8
10

25
Which of the following are performed by a switch port that is in the forwarding state in an STP network? (Choose three.)
discarding data traffic
*receiving data traffic
*forwarding data traffic
recalculating BPDUs
*receiving BPDUs
blocking BPDUs

2
6
Which of the following are considered limitations of RIP v1? (Choose three.)
*It does not support authentication.
It sends updates as broadcasts on 255.255.255.255.
*It does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
It is not widely supported in multivendor routing environments.
*It does not support equal-cost load balancing.

27
What will be the result of OSPF DR/BDR elections in the network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
*R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.
R2 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.
R3 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.
R4 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.

28
An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the graphic?
*forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2

29
A redundant switched topology is being installed in an enterprise. Which of the following should be configured to ensure that this network operates efficiently?
TTL
*STP
BID
BPDU
ARP

30
How can MAC address table entries be removed from a switch? (Choose two.)
*Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
*The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

31
What is the term that describes the cabling between the MDF and IDF locations as shown in the graphic?
horizontal cross-connect
horizontal cross-cabling
*vertical cross-connect
vertical cross-cabling

32
An entire workgroup has lost network connectivity. After shutting down and restarting the workgroup switch in the wiring closet, it is observed that the switch system LED is amber. What should be done?
The switch should be reconfigured.
*The switch should be replaced in order to restore connectivity to the workgroup.
The switch should be allowed to complete POST before its configuration is checked.
The switch has returned to service, however its configuration should be checked.

33
Which of the following statements about link-state advertisements are correct? (Choose three.)
LSAs are sent to neighboring routers on a regular basis.
LSAs are used by a router to determine if a neighboring router is online.
*LSAs are multicast to all routers in the area.
*LSAs contain the topological database of the sending router.
Routers use LSAs to learn about the topology of the entire network.
*LSAs are sent when the router detects a topology change.

34
A switch that was previously attached to another VTP management domain is added to an existing VTP domain. VLAN information on all the other switches in the existing VTP management domain is lost. Why did this happen?
Adding the new switch caused spanning tree protocol to recalculate the network and erase the existing VLAN configurations.
The new switch BID was higher than the existing VTP server, causing the new switch to broadcast incorrect VLAN information to the domain.
*The new switch had a higher VTP configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain and erased the VLAN information on the VTP server and VTP clients.
The new switch exceeded the maximum number of switches permitted in a management domain.
The switch advertised VTP version 2 information to the network, causing the existing VLAN data to be overwritten.

35
Refer to the topology and link path costs shown in the graphic. What is the total cost of the path that OSPF will use between the Data_Center router and the BldgA router?
2
11
*12
65
66

36
Which LAN design requirement addresses user-to user and user-to-application connectivity?
adaptability
manageability
scalability
*functionality

37
A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
*The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

38
Which of the following are features of the distribution layer? (Choose three.)
VLAN routing
MAC layer filtering
*security
microsegmentation
*packet filtering with access control lists
*workgroup access

39
The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
*A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.
*The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
*The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
The hosts are configured on different logical networks.

40
While deleting the VLANs from a switch, a network administrator receives the following message, "A default VLAN may not be deleted". What did the administrator do to cause this message to be displayed?
The no vlan all command was entered.
The no switchport mode access command was not properly entered.
*The no vlan 1 command was entered.
The no vlan command was entered in database configuration mode.
The no default vlan command was entered.
The administrator attempted to delete a VLAN that still has switch ports assigned to it.

41
Which of the following statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
*All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
*All interfaces are set to auto.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
*The flash directory contains the IOS image.

42
What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
There is no activity on the route to that network.
*The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.

43
Which of the following are characteristics of a router-on-a-stick design for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
*multiple logical router interfaces
multiple physical router interfaces
*one logical router interface
one physical router interface
*multiple logical networks defined for each VLAN
one logical network defined for each VLAN

44
Which of the following tables does DUAL use to calculate the lowest cost routes to each destination?
routing table and topology table
neighbor table and routing table
*neighbor table and topology table
neighbor table and adjacency table

45
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
*Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
Configure the router with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
*Apply a network host address and subnet mask to the newly activated interface.
*Activate the routing protocol with the router rip version 2 command.
Configure RIP on the other routers in the enterprise with an entry for the newly added network.

46
Using Telnet, a network administrator is unable to log in to a switch located at another office in order to make configuration changes to it. What could be the problem?
The managmement station does not have access to a full-duplex Fast Ethernet link on the switch.
*VLAN 1 on the switch is not configured for TCP/IP network access.
The switch must be managed from the local LAN.
The switch hostname has not been set.

47
The routers in the diagram are configured for RIP v2 on network 1.0.0.0. Additional static routes are configured as shown in the graphic. What will RA do with a packet it receives on interface 1.1.1.1 that is destined for host 2.2.1.1 on a remote network?
buffer it until it learns a route to 2.2.0.0
forward it to 1.1.1.2
forward it to 1.1.2.2
*forward it to 1.1.3.2
forward it to 2.1.1.2
drop the packet

48
Which strategies can a company take to enhance network reliability through redundancy? (Choose two.)
*Eliminate single points of failure.
Flood frames for unknown destinations.
Send multiple frames to an end device.
*Design alternate routes to a destination.
Forward MAC address tables to all switches on the network.
Eliminate multiple paths to the same destination.

49
Which interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
*OSPF
RIP v1
*RIP v2
*EIGRP
BGP
IGRP

50
Router XYZ is to be added to OSPF area 0. Which of the following is the correct syntax for enabling OSPF on this router?
XYZ(config)# router ospf
*XYZ(config)# router ospf 0
XYZ(config)# router ospf 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 0
XYZ(config)# router ospf process 10
XYZ(config)# router ospf processid 10

51
Users are complaining that resources housed on a remote network have become unavailable. Which command can the administrator use to check whether this destination network is known to the local router?
*router# show ip route
router# show route
router# show ip rip
router# show rip
router# show protocol

52
What is the purpose of a default route?
A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be dropped.
*A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be sent to a designated router interface.
A default route will cause packets addressed to known destinations to prefer a specified path to the destination network.
A default route will direct packets for all destination networks to a designated router and router interface.

53
Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a bridge will forward a frame?
A
B
C
D
E
*F

54
The 192.168.10.0/27 network is to be further subnetted with a /30 mask. Assuming that ip subnet-zero is enabled, what are the first two addresses in the first resulting subnet that can be used for point-to-point links?
*192.168.10.1
*192.168.10.2
192.168.10.33
192.168.10.34
192.168.10.193
192.168.10.194

55
Which distribution layer devices enhance Layer 2 switching with Layer 3 functionality? (Choose two.)
multilayer routers
*multilayer switches
bridges
managed hubs
VLANs
*a switch with a router module

56
What do switches configured with VLANs provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
bridging between VLANs
*security
*broadcast control
physical grouping of users
*logical grouping of users
enlargement of collison domains

57
A switched Ethernet network is experiencing unusually heavy traffic to the extent that network delays have become intolerable. While investigating the problem, a network administrator disconnects a redundant uplink between two switches. The excessive traffic quickly subsides. What was the likely cause of this problem?
*broadcast storms
routing loops
multiple frame copies
load balancing
unicast frame forwarding

58
Which Ethernet device has the highest latency factor?
transceiver
hub
MAU
*router
switch

59
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?
They dynamically learn new routes.
They continously monitor the status of their own ports.
They exchange their entire neighbor tables with directly attached routers.
*They exchange hello packets with their neighbors every five seconds, by default.
They compare known routes to received updates.

60
Which of the following statements regarding server placement are correct? (Choose two.)
*Enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.
Workgroup servers should be located in the MDF.
*Workgroup servers should be located in an IDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.
Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in an IDF.

61
How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
*They both use hop count as a metric.
*They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors.
They both send subnet mask information in their updates.
They both provide for authentication of update sources.
*They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

62
Which algorithm does EIGRP use to calculate routes?
PDM
RTP
*DUAL
LSA
postamble();

3.1 CCNA 3 Module 9 Answers

2008-11-24T19:22:00.004+08:00

1 How do devices on VLANs communicate? (Choose two.)
• Devices on different VLANs communicate through VTP.
• Devices on different VLANs communicate through routers.
• Devices on different VLANs communicate over a trunk link between switches.
• Devices on the same VLAN communicate through a router.
• Devices on the same VLAN communicate through Layer 2 switches.

2

The switches in the diagram are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
• VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
• Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.
• VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
• There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
• Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.

3

Refer to the graphic. What are some advantages of replacing the individual VLAN links between Switch1 and Switch2 with a single trunk line? (Choose three.)
• It would free 2 switch ports on each switch.
• It would free 3 switch ports on each switch.
• It would save 2 cabling runs.
• It would save 3 cabling runs.
• It would provide three times the bandwidth of the individual links.
• It would allow adding more VLANs without requiring more cabling or switch ports.

4

A switch is configured with the commands shown in the diagram. Host1 is connected to port 0/4 with an IP address of 192.168.1.22/28. Host2 is connected to port 0/5 with an IP address of 192.168.1.33/28. Host3 is connected to port 0/6 with an IP address of 192.168.1.30/28. Select the statements that describe the success of pinging from one host to another. (Choose three.)
• Host1 can ping Host2.
• Host1 cannot ping Host2.
• Host1 can ping Host3.
• Host1 cannot ping Host3.
• Host2 can ping Host3.
• Host2 cannot ping Host3.

5

A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 60.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
• The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

6 A switch in a VTP domain sends an advertisement request. What will be the response?
• A configuration status reply will be issued from the closest client switch.
• A three-way handshake will establish a configuration session with the VTP server.
• Summary and subset advertisements will be sent by the VTP server.
• The configuration version number will be set to zero and all switches in the domain will issue advertisements regarding the state of their VLANs.

7 Which devices can be connected to a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
• a switch
• a hub
• a router
• a server with a special NIC
• a CSU/DSU
• a repeater

8 What should be done before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Verify that the new switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

9 Which of the following must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
• one subinterface per VLAN
• one physical interface for each subinterface
• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
• one trunked link per VLAN
• a management domain for each subinterface
• a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

10 By default, to which VLAN does a trunked link belong?
• the first VLAN defined
• the last VLAN defined
• all VLANs
• the lowest number VLAN

11

If trunking were not used in the network shown in the graphic, how many links would be required to carry the traffic for all the VLANs between the switches?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

12

Host A sends a frame to host B over the network shown in the graphic. Each link has been labeled with a letter. On which links along the path between hosts A and B will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
• C, E
• A, C, E
• C, E, F
• A, C, D, E
• A, B, C, D, E
• A, B, C, D, E, F, G

13

Which statements describe the network design shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• This design will not scale easily.
• This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
• Devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.
• This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
• This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
• The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.

14 What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
• A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
• A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
• A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
• The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.

15

The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate?
• No VTP domain has been configured.
• A router is needed to forward traffic between the VLANs.
• The switch does not have an entry in its CAM table for Host2.
• The host IP configurations are on different networks.
• The ports on each VLAN must be grouped together on the switch.

16

Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the graphic. What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
• Switch2 is in transparent mode.
• Switch1 is in client mode.
• Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
• Switch2 is in server mode.
• Switch1 is in a different management domain.
• Switch1 has no VLANs.

17 What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
• It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
• It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
• It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
• It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
• It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

18 What information does frame tagging add to each frame to allow delivery of frames across a switched trunk?
• the destination MAC address
• the switch MAC address
• the VLAN ID
• the BID

19 Which of the following statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
• Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
• Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
• Transparent mode switches pass VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
• Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes received from other switches.
• Transparent mode switches send out updates informing other switches about changes in the status of their VLANs.

20 Select the items that describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
• can add VLANs of local significance only
• can only adopt VLAN management changes
• can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
• can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
• can add VLANs to domain
• cannot add VLANs

21

A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Router RA is attached to the VTP trunk and configured as shown in the output contained in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
• 192.168.1.1 /26
• 192.168.1.11 /28
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.33 /28
• 192.168.1.44 /28
• 192.168.1.55 /28

22 A router has two serial interfaces and two FastEthernet interfaces. It needs to connect to a wide area link to the main office and to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient manner?
• Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to a router FastEthernet interface and create logical subinterfaces for each VLAN.
• Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
• Two additional FastEthernet interfaces are required to interconnect the VLANs.
• Use serial to FastEthernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the router. Attach the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.
• Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.

3.1 CCNA 3 Module 8 Answers

2008-11-24T19:21:00.002+08:00

1What are the characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose three.)

• CDP messages are only sent on VLAN1.
• VLAN1 is reserved for links between switches.
• All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
• VLAN1 must be created before ports can be assigned to it.
• Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
• An IP address configured on the switch will only apply to ports on VLAN1.

2 Which approach to assigning VLAN membership maximizes forwarding performance?
• membership by MAC address
• membership by logical address
• membership by protocol
• membership by port
• membership by operating system

3 How does a bridge handle the frames that it receives? (Choose three.)
• If the source is unknown, the source port is shutdown.
• If the source port of a frame is unknown, a bridge will issue an ARP request.
• If the destination is on another segment, the bridge forwards the frame only to the correct interface.
• A bridge forwards frames for unknown destinations to the default gateway.
• If the destination port is unknown, a bridge will flood the frame to all ports in the broadcast domain, except for the source port.
• If the destination of the frame is on the same segment as the source, a bridge will not forward the frame.

4 What needs to be done when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose three.)
• Enter database configuration mode.
• Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.
• Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.
• Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.
• Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.
• Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.

5 A network administrator is attempting to configure routing between VLANs over a trunked link. A trunk link cannot be established between a switch and a router. Which of the following are possible sources of this problem? (Choose two.)
• The router IOS does not support trunking.
• The port is connected and is not receiving alignment and FCS errors.
• The switch duplex and speed are not set properly.
• The router and switch are running different versions of STP.
• The switch IP address is incorrectly configured.

6 If two 12-port hubs are connected to a switch that has three VLANs configured, how many bridging tables will the switch maintain?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 12
• 36

7 A network administrator has configured a switch with VLANs. Hosts will join the VLANs based on their MAC or IP address. What type of VLANs have been configured on the switch?
• dynamic
• database
• multiple
• port-based

8 A network administrator has configured a switch with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3. Port 10 is to be assigned to VLAN3. Which of the following commands are needed to assign port 10 to VLAN3? (Choose three.)
• Switch_1(config)# switchport interface fastethernet 0/10
• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport mode access
• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access
• Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
• Switch_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/10
• Switch_1# vlan database

9 How does the use of VLANs benefit an organization? (Choose two.)
• by centralizing departmental staff and network resources together in a single physical area
• by allowing organizational flexibility by grouping users together by function instead of physical location
• by simplifying the task of adding and moving network resources and users in a growing organization
• by reducing the number of broadcast domains in an enterprise network
• by eliminating the need for routing traffic in large networks
• by reducing network management costs by replacing many Layer 2 devices with a few Layer 3 devices

10 Which of the following states the 80/20 rule of end-to-end VLANs
• 80% of network resources should be remote and 20% should be on the local VLAN.
• 80% of VLANs should be static and the remaining 20% should be dynamic.
• 80% of network traffic should be local and 20% remote.
• 80% of the network sources should be centralized at the core layer and the remaining 20% at the distribution layer.
• 80% of traffic should be routed and 20% should be switched.

11 Which factors influence the number of VLANs that may be required on a switch? (Choose three.)
• the physical addressing scheme
• traffic patterns in the network
• types of applications in use
• the adaptability of the network
• workgroup functions and commonality
• the tagging option used for VLAN identification

12 A network administrator has just finished configuring a switch with multiple VLANs. A workstation on VLAN2 cannot communicate with a workstation on VLAN3. What needs to be done to correct this problem?
• The traffic needs to be routed between the two VLANs.
• The hosts must be reconfigured to be on the same logical network.
• The VLANs need to be configured to be on the same broadcast domain.
• The switch must be configured to share VLAN traffic.

13 Which of the following describe networks in which the use of static VLANs is appropriate? (Choose three.)
• Workstations, departments, and network resources are seldom moved.
• VLAN port membership frequently changes.
• Robust VLAN management software is available to the network administrator.
• The overhead required to manage VLAN MAC address and custom filtering tables is not desirable.
• VLANs are often added, deleted, and modified.

14 VLAN 10 needs to be removed from a switch. Which command must the administrator enter in order to accomplish this task?
• Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 10
• Switch(config-if)# erase switchport access vlan 10
• Switch(vlan)# no vlan 10
• Switch(vlan)# no vlan database 10

15

Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host A on VLAN1 has sent a message requesting the MAC address of its default gateway. Which of the following network hosts will process this message?
• The message will be seen by the hosts on VLAN1 and VLAN2.
• The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to Switch1.
• The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1.
• The message will be seen by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1 and Switch2.
• The message will only be seen by router interface e0. •

16 If a switch connects 12 collision domains and is configured with three VLANs, how many broadcast domains does it have?
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 12

17 Which of the following commands are used to verify VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
• Switch# show vlan id id_number
• Switch# show vlan
• Switch# show config vlan id_number
• Switch# show vlan config id_number
• Switch# show interface vlan id_number

18 Which of the following commands will assign switch port 0/9 to VLAN3?
• Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
• Switch(config-if)# switchport vlan 3
• Switch(config-if)# switchport access 3
• Switch(vlan)# switchport 0/9
• Switch(vlan)# access switchport 0/9

19 What does a switch do when it receives a frame and the source address is unknown?
• The switch will discard the frame.
• The switch will request the sender resend the frame.
• The switch will map the source address to the port on which it was received.
• The switch will flood the frame to all attached devices.
• The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.

20 What is true of the method by which VLAN membership is identified in Ethernet frames? (Choose two.)
• The frame header is in its original format when it reaches the endpoint device.
• The VLAN membership of frames does not need to be identified unless ISL is in use.
• The Ethernet frame is encapsulated or modified with the VLAN ID information.
• The VLAN ID is removed by the endpoint device upon delivery of the frame.

21 Which of the following statements are true regarding a root bridge in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• The root bridge timers control BPDU traffic on the network.
• Only the show commands on the switch can display root bridge information.
• It is the central point of a spanning tree topology.
• Storm control is enabled by default.
• VLANs cannot be trunked between switches until the root bridge has been elected.

22 Which of the following are methods of establishing VLAN membership? (Choose three.)
• logical addresses
• physical addresses
• ISL addresses
• switch port attachment
• hardware platform
• traffic pattern

23 Switch-A and Switch-B are both configured with ports in the Marketing, Sales, Accounting, and Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 12 users. How many different subnetworks will be needed to enable routed connectivity between the VLANs?
• 1
• 4
• 12
• 48

24 What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
• They become inactive.
• They default back to the management VLAN.
• They automatically become a part of VLAN1.
• They must be assigned to another VLAN before the original VLAN can be deleted.
• They remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

3.1 CCNA 3 Module 7 Answers

2008-11-24T19:19:00.003+08:00

1Which algorithm is used to create a loop free switched topology?

• Spanning Tree
• Shortest Path First
• Dykstra
• Rapid Tree
• Bellman-Ford

2 Which of the following describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
• They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
• Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
• They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
• The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3 What is meant by "five nines" network uptime?
• A network should be available until 9:00 pm five days of the week.
• A network should be functioning 99.999% of the time.
• There should be five nine-port uplinks for each backbone segment.
• Five percent of network expenditures should address 99% of user requirements.
• Nothing short of 100% network uptime is acceptable in modern networks.

4

Switch_A and Switch_B shown in the graphic receive an ARP request from the host and forward it out their ports. The switches receive the forwarded requests from each other and in turn flood the requests again. What will be the result if this process continues?
• a broadcast storm
• multicast errors
• ARP table errors
• MAC address instability
• redundant unicast frame forwarding

5 Which of the following are valid STP port states? (Choose three.)
• blocking
• learning
• converging
• listening
• switching

6 How often are BPDUs sent by default in a network using the spanning-tree algorithm?
• every second
• every two seconds
• every three seconds
• every four seconds

7 What happens when there is a topology change on a network that utilizes STP ? (Choose two.)
• User traffic is disrupted until recalculation is complete.
• The switch recomputes the Spanning Tree topology after the network converges.
• All ports are placed in learning state until convergence has occurred.
• A delay of up to 50 seconds is incurred for convergence of the new Spanning Tree topology.
• User data is forwarded while BPDUs are exchanged to recompute the topology.

8 How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
• Configure the switch as the static root bridge.
• Change the BPDU to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.

9 What features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose three.)
• the max-age timer
• the listening forward delay
• the spanning-tree hold down timer
• the learning forward delay
• the spanning-tree path cost
• the blocking delay

10 How does a switch forward a multicast frame through the network?
• It floods it to all ports as a broadcast.
• It is forwarded only to ports that contain the destination address.
• It is sent to the port that contains the first destination address.
• It floods it to all ports except the one it was received on.
• It is dropped and not sent to any address.

11 Following a link failure, when does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol allow point-to-point and edge type links to go to the forwarding state?
• in 15 seconds
• never
• immediately
• in 30 seconds
• after 90 seconds

12 What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• determination of the designated port for each segment
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• activation of the root port for each segment

13 What link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
• shared
• end-to-end
• edge-type
• boundary-type
• point-to-many
• point-to-point

14 What characteristic of Ethernet makes a redundantly switched network prone to loops?
• Routers are only able to prevent loops at Layer 3, while Ethernet exists at Layer 2.
• The Ethernet protocol has no TTL mechanism.
• Switches lack the sophisticated software required to prevent loops.
• Looping of frames is a reliability mechanism built in to the Ethernet protocol.

15 In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

16 In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
• blocking
• learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding

17 Which of the following criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location

18 What elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
• one root bridge per network
• all non-designated ports forwarding
• one root port per non-root bridge
• multiple designated ports per segment
• one designated port per network

19

Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host1 needs to transfer data to host2, but host1 has no MAC address entry in its ARP cache for host2. What will happen on the network as host1 prepares to transmit its data to host2?
• Host1 will receive an ICMP destination unknown message from switch3.
• All hosts in the network shown will receive an ARP request message from host1.
• Multicasting will occur until host2 is located.
• Switch3 will send the host2 MAC address from its bridging table to host1.
• A broadcast storm will occur.

20 How much time does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
• 2 seconds
• 15 seconds
• 20 seconds
• 50 seconds

21

Refer to the graphic. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
• Router_1 will kill the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
• Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
• Switch_B will broadcast the request and reply with the Router_1 address.
• The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

22 Which of the following are problems that can occur in redundantly switched networks? (Choose three.)
• broadcast storms
• corrupted ARP tables
• duplicate MAC addresses
• inaccurate routing tables
• multiple copies of Ethernet frames
• MAC address table instability

23 How is the information contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
• to activate looped paths throughout the network

3.1 CCNA 3 Module 6 Answers

2008-11-24T19:16:00.002+08:00

1 Which files must be deleted in order to completely remove an existing configuration from a Cisco 2950 switch? (Choose two.)
• flash:c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.bin
• running-config
• VLAN.bin
• startup-config
• c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.dat
• VLAN.dat

2 Which commands can be used to change from Global Configuration mode to Privileged EXEC mode? (Choose three.)

• Ctrl+z
• disable
• end
• exit
• logout

3 An administrator is using the switch help facility to find the command elements available to the configure command. What would the user type at the command prompt to display the next set of arguments available in the syntax for this command
• Switch# c?
• Switch# c ?
• Switch# configure?
• Switch# configure ?

4 Which switch command mode should always be password protected?
• User Command
• User Config
• User EXEC
• User Privileged
• Privileged EXEC

5 What must be done in order to initiate the password recovery procedure on a Catalyst 2900 series switch?
• Rename the Flash file.
• Enter the setup program by deleting the switch configuration file and rebooting the switch.
• Hold down the MODE button during switch startup.
• Wait for the STAT LED to turn green while holding down the Break key.
• Hold down the Ctrl-Break keys during switch startup.

6 Which protocol is used to copy a new IOS image to a Catalyst switch during the upgrade procedure?
• HTTP
• Telnet
• TFTP
• TTY
• IOS

7 A group of hosts has been connected to a new Fast Ethernet switch. Which of the following statements describe this newly created LAN, if the new switch has not yet been configured? (Choose three.)
• The hosts will negotiate 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps bandwidth with the switch, as required by their NICs.
• The hosts will be in separate broadcast domains.
• All of the hosts will be in the same VLAN.
• Hosts with 10 Mbps NICs will be unable to communicate with the network.
• All of the hosts should be able to send and receive ARP messages from each other.
• All of the hosts connected by Ethernet can manage the switch over Telnet or HTTP.

8 A workstation on a switched Ethernet LAN is to be upgraded with a new Fast Ethernet NIC. What should be done to ensure that the workstation will be able to gain access to the network?
• delete the configuration file from the switch and reload IOS
• deactivate port security on the port until the new host has connected to the network
• remove the host from the the management VLAN until the new MAC address has been learned by the switch
• delete the VLAN.dat file from flash and reboot the switch
• configure the attached switch port for full-duplex mode

9 Although the backup configuration file on a Catalyst 2950 switch has been erased, it is found that VLANs are still configured in the switch. What must be done to clear the configured VLANs?
• The vlan.dat file must be erased and the switch reloaded.
• The switch flash memory must be purged and the switch rebooted.
• The vlan.cfg file must be renamed and IOS restarted.
• Each VLAN needs to be deleted individually and the configuration saved.
• The switch needs to be restarted, because the old running configuration is still in memory.

10 Which type of cable is used to connect to the console port on a switch?
• a crossover cable
• a patch cable
• a rollover cable
• a straight-thru cable

11 From which switch command mode can the configure command be used?
• config
• user EXEC
• privileged EXEC
• command EXEC
• flash

12 An old workstation has been replaced with a new one. The workgroup switch, a Catalyst 2950, is not learning the MAC address of the new workstation. A network technician has verified that a static MAC address is not configured on the attached switch port. Which two commands can the technician issue at the switch CLI to further troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)
• Switch# show port security
• Switch# show version
• Switch# show startup-config
• Switch# clear mac-address-table dynamic
• Switch# reload
• Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

13 Which methods can be used to perform the initial configuration of a new switch? (Choose two.)
• copy a configuration from a FTP server
• type commands manually after entering the Privileged EXEC mode
• enter the System Configuration dialog
• Telnet to a local server to copy a configuration file
• connect to the switch using a web browser

14 How long will a host MAC address remain in the address table of a switch after the host has been turned off or moved to another device?
• 30 seconds
• 180 seconds
• 300 seconds
• 30 minutes

15 What is the name of the series of tests that execute every time a switch is powered on?
• RPS
• bootstrap
• power-on self test
• system STAT
• pre-boot

16 After powering up a switch, the network technician notices that the system LED is amber. What can the technician assume? (Choose two.)
• The switch is negotiating full or half-duplex mode.
• The switch has completed negotiating 10 or 100 Mbps speed.
• The POST has failed.
• The boot sequence is in process.
• A fatal error has occurred.
• The switch is operating properly and is ready for service.

17 When the copy tftp flash command is used to upgrade the IOS on a switch, which symbol indicates that the image was copied successfully?
• e
• *
• !
• s
• #

18 What color is the System LED if the switch fails the POST?
• amber
• green
• red
• white
• off

19 How can a switch be configured to prevent unauthorized hosts from access to a network? (Choose three.)
• Host MAC addresses can be statically assigned to each switch port.
• Layer 2 access control lists can be used to prevent unauthorized network access.
• Unused ports can be shutdown.
• Passwords and usernames can be set for each Ethernet switch port.
• Unused switch ports can be assigned to the management VLAN.
• Port security can be activated to allow only the host with the first MAC address learned on a port to access the network.

20 A new policy for disaster recovery requires copying all critical network configurations and operating systems to a backup server that will be stored offsite. Which command will create a backup of the switch IOS image on the server?
• Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
• Switch# copy running-config tftp
• Switch# copy flash tftp
• Switch# copy IOS tftp
• Switch# copy tftp flash
• Switch# copy NVRAM tftp

3.1 CCNA 3 Module 5 Answers

2008-11-24T19:15:00.004+08:00

1 Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone

• access
• distribution
• network
• core
• workgroup
• WAN

2 What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)
• replacing hubs with switches
• segmenting the network by installing a router
• creating VLANs for each workgroup
• adding additional hubs to the local area network
• replacing routers with LAN switches
• adding bridges to connect different workgroups

3 At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

4 Where should DNS and email servers be located?
• IDF
• MDF
• HCC
• VCC
• POP

5 VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to communicate with hosts on VLAN2?
• VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.
• The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.
• A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.
• An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.
• Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches.

6 What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and Main Distribution Facilities?
• patch cables of variable lengths
• horizontal cross-connect cabling
• vertical cross-connect cabling
• parallel cross-connect cabling

7 Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)
• throughput
• response time
• workstation speed
• access to resources
• desktop applications

8 Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)
• adaptability
• manageability
• operability
• scalability
• stability

9 Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that of the horizontal cable?
• Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.
• Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling.

10 A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)
• access
• data link
• network
• internet
• transport

11 To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)
• sustainability
• reliability
• manageability
• adaptability
• functionality
• scalability

12 Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
• redundant paths
• high-level policy enforcement
• packet manipulation
• media transitions
• rapid forwarding of traffic
• no packet filtering

13 Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)
• inter-VLAN routing
• Layer 2 filtering
• Layer 3 filtering
• microsegmentation
• bandwidth security

14 Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?
• FDDI
• Ethernet
• Wireless
• Token Ring

15 A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?
• one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces
• multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces
• multi-port gigabit switches
• switches running VLANs
• managed smart hubs

16 Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)
• hubs
• bridges
• switches
• routers

17 A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?
• functionality
• sustainability
• adaptability
• manageability
• scalability

18 When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting collision domains occur?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 4
• Layer 7

19 What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution layer?
• filtering of core switching errors
• preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer
• preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer
• maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy
• isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks

20 Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the workgroups in which they occur?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core

3.1 CCNA 3 Module 4 Answers

2008-11-24T19:13:00.002+08:00

1 Which statements are true concerning the shared memory buffering used by an Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
• Frames are processed through a single queue.
• All frames are placed in a common memory buffer.
• Frames are placed in a queue for the destination port.
• A port with a full memory buffer can cause frames for available ports to be delayed.
• Each switch port is statically assigned a buffer of equal size.

2 What are the functions of routers? (Choose three.)
• improving network performance by increasing latency by twenty to thirty percent
• segmenting broadcast domains
• forwarding packets based on destination network layer addresses
• segmenting collision domains
• forwarding packets as soon as the destination MAC address is read
• developing routing table entries based on source IP addresses

3 What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)
• preventing broadcasts
• increasing available bandwidth per user
• decreasing the size of collision domains
• isolating traffic among segments
• routing traffic between different networks
• decreasing the number of broadcast domains

4 Why does a switch have higher throughput compared to a bridge?
• Switching occurs in software.
• Switching occurs in hardware.
• Switches create multiple broadcast domains.
• Switches segment LANs.

5 Why would a network administrator segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
• to create fewer collision domains
• to enhance user bandwidth
• to create more broadcast domains
• to eliminate virtual circuits
• to isolate traffic between segments
• to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

6

Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a frame is forwarded when the switch is using store-and-forward mode?
• A
• B
• C
• D
• E
• F

7 Hubs are concerned with which PDU?
• bits
• frames
• packets
• datagrams

8 Which statements are true regarding hubs? (Choose three.)
• Hubs operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
• They create separate collision domains.
• Signals are distributed through all ports.
• Layer 2 addresses are used to make decisions.
• They calculate the CRC for each frame received prior to forwarding.
• Bandwidth is shared among all connected users.

9 Which device provides segmentation within a single network?
• hub
• server
• switch
• transceiver

10 Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast address?
• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.255.255
• 11:11:11:11
• FF:FF:FF:FF
• FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

11

Refer to the graphic. Which point in the frame must be reached before it is forwarded by a switch that is using fast-forward mode?
• A
• B
• C
• D
• E
• F

12 Which switching mode changes to store-and-forward mode after it detects a given number of errors?
• cut-through
• adaptive fast-forward
• fragment-free
• adaptive cut-through

13 Which form of buffering is used by bridges?
• cut-through
• fragment-free
• fast-forward
• store-and-forward

14 Where are switching tables stored in a Cisco LAN switch?
• ROM
• CAM
• Flash
• SIMM
• NRAM

15 Which of the following are true regarding the addition of switches to a network? (Choose two.)
• They increase the number of collision domains.
• They decrease the number of collision domains.
• They increase the number of broadcast domains.
• They decrease the number of broadcast domains.
• They increase the amount of bandwidth available to users.
• They decrease the amount of bandwidth available to users.

16 Which of the following is used to build a switching table?
• source IP addresses
• destination IP addresses
• destination MAC addresses
• source MAC addresses

17 Which statements describe asymmetric switching? (Choose three.)
• It uses data compression algorithms to manage higher bandwidth interfaces.
• It is often used to provide high bandwidth uplinks for a number of lower bandwidth client interfaces.
• It provides connections between network segments that operate at different bandwidths.
• It uses cut-through forwarding when going from a lower bandwidth to a higher bandwidth interface.
• It is used to provide more bandwidth to network clients than to backbone or server links.
• It may require buffering frames before forwarding to the destination interface.

18 What does switch latency describe?
• forwarding method used by a switch
• time it takes for a frame to be received by a switch
• improvement in network performance from using a switch
• time delay between when a frame enters and exits a switch
• increase in the size of a collision domain from using a switch

19 How does an Ethernet bridge handle an incoming frame? (Choose three.)
• The source MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
• The destination MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
• If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is discarded.
• If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is flooded out all other interfaces.
• If a match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded out the associated interface.
• If a match to the source MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded to all ports.

20 Which attribute is used by a bridge to make forwarding decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• Layer 4-7 protocol address

3.1 CCNA 3 Module 3 Answers

2008-11-24T19:11:00.003+08:00

1 Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?
• DUAL
• IP
• PDM
• RTP
• TCP
• UDP

2 Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
• Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
• Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
• The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
• Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

3 What is the EIGRP term for a backup route?
• backup route
• default route
• feasible successor route
• gateway
• secondary route
• successor route

4 Why would it be necessary to configure the bandwidth setting on an EIGRP interface rather than leaving it at the default setting? (Choose two.)
• A suboptimal route may be chosen as the best path to a destination if the bandwidth setting is higher than the actual bandwidth of the link.
• The network may be unable to converge if the bandwidth setting does not match the actual bandwidth of the link.
• Routing updates might arrive too fast for the interface to handle and be discarded because of buffer overflow.
• The configured bandwidth must match the actual speed of the link so the link will operate properly.
• Setting the bandwidth to a higher rate will optimize the effective throughput of the link.

5 If an EIGRP route goes down and a feasible successor is not found in the topology table, how does DUAL flag the route that has failed?
• recomputed
• passive
• active
• down
• unreachable
• successor

6 What tables does EIGRP maintain for each routed protocol it supports? (Choose three.)
• adjacency table
• topology table
• neighbor table
• routing table
• link state table
• ARP table

7 In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
• routing
• topology
• neighbor
• path
• shortest path

8 Which of the following are found in the EIGRP neighbor table? (Choose two.)
• routes installed by DUAL
• lowest calculated metric to each destination
• network layer address of the neighbor routers
• number of EIGRP packets waiting to be sent
• feasible distance to each neighbor

9 Which of the following router commands is recommended only for troubleshooting specific types of network problems, not for monitoring normal network operation?
• show
• list
• debug
• terminal monitor

10 Which EIGRP command is used to view all routes that are known by the router?
• show ip eigrp interfaces detail
• show ip eigrp traffic
• show ip eigrp neighbors
• show ip eigrp topology all-links

11 What is the default administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?
• 70
• 90
• 100
• 110
• 120
• 255

12 What is the advantage of routers forming adjacencies when using EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• Neighbor routers can quickly take over for a router that is in passive mode.
• New routers and their routes can quickly be discovered by neighbor routers.
• A router can share routing loads with neighbor routers.
• A router can quickly discover when a neighbor router is no longer available.
• Changes in network topology can quickly be shared with neighbor routers.
• Neighbor routers can save overhead by sharing their DUAL databases.

13 Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
• routes learned from other routing protocols
• routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
• any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
• EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
• all passive routes in the routing table

14 Which command will help identify established OSPF neighbor adjacencies?
• router# show ospf neighbor
• router# debug neighbor events
• router# debug ip ospf neighbor
• router# show ip ospf neighbor

15 Which command will display only the current EIGRP routing table entries?
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip route eigrp
• Router# show eigrp route
• Router# show eigrp protocol

16

Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
• R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
• R1(config-router)# auto-summary
• R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

17 What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
• the routing protocol
• the feasible distance of the route
• the highest cost of the route
• the SRTT value for the route
• the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
• the physical address of the gateway interface

3.1 CCNA 3 Module 2 Answers

2008-11-24T19:08:00.005+08:00

1 What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
• bandwidth
• bandwidth and hop count
• bandwidth and reliability
• bandwidth, load, and reliablity

2 Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

3 Which router is the root of an SPF tree?
• border router
• nearest neighboring router
• local router
• trunk router, as determined by the SPF algorithm

4 In which types of networks are OSPF DR elections necessary? (Choose two.)
• point-to-point
• point-to-multipoint
• broadcast multiaccess
• nonbroadcast multiaccess

5

What will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
• Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.

6

Refer to the network shown in the diagram. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a Gateway of Last Resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate
• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
• RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

7 Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
• Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
• Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

8 What information can be obtained from the output of the show ip ospf interface command? (Choose three.)
• link-state age intervals
• timer intervals
• router ID number
• link-state update intervals
• neighbor adjacencies

9

RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Loopback interfaces (Lo 0) are configured as shown. What happens when RouterD is added to the network?
• RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
• RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
• RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

10 What are the benefits of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks? (Choose three.)
• reduction of routing overhead
• increased routing overhead
• faster convergence
• slower convergence
• distribution of network instability to all areas of the network
• isolation of network instability to one area of the network

11

Which command sequence will enable OSPF in the backbone area for the two Ethernet links on RouterA?
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255 area 1
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# area 0 network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-route)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 255.255.255.0
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.254.0 area 0

12 Which of the following are disadvantages of link-state routing? (Choose three.)
• Link-state protocols require careful network design.
• Link-state protocols are prone to routing loops.
• Link-state hello updates can cause broadcast flooding.
• Link-state protocols place significant demands on router processors and memory resources.
• Link-state protocols require a knowledgeable network administrator.
• Link-state protocols do not support Variable Length Subnet Masking.

13 What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes
• updates sent at regular intervals
• updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
• updates that include complete routing tables

14 Because of security concerns, a network administrator wants to set up authentication between two routers. Which of the following commands will configure Router_A to trust Router_B with a clear text password of apollo?
• Router_A(config-if)# ospf authentication-key apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip authentication-key apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication-key apollo

15 How can the OSPF cost for a link be established? (Choose two.)
• It is set to 1544 by default for all OSPF interfaces.
• It can be set with the ip ospf cost command.
• The configured loopback addresses map to link costs.
• It is calculated proportionally to observed throughput capacity of the router.
• It may be calculated using the formula 108/bandwidth.

16 A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

17

The routers in the diagram are configured as shown. The loopback interface on router R1 is labeled as lo0. All OSPF priorities are set to the default except for Ethernet0 of router R2, which has an OSPF priority of 2. What will be the result of the OSPF DR/BDR elections on the 192.1.1.0 network? (Choose two.)
• R1 will be the DR
• R1 will be the BDR
• R2 will be the DR
• R2 will be the BDR
• R3 will be the DR
• R3 will be the BDR

18 Which router command will display the interface priority value and other key information for the OSPF configuration of the serial 0 interface?
• router# show ospf serial 0
• router# show interface serial 0 OSPF
• router# show ip interface serial 0
• router# show ip ospf interface serial 0

19 Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

20 What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
• root router
• backup root router
• domain router
• backup domain router
• designated router
• backup designated router

3.1 CCNA 3 Module 1 Answers

2008-11-24T19:05:00.007+08:00

1 Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• 32-bit address
• next hop router interface
• subnet mask
• unicast host address
• Layer 2 address

2

Router1 and Router2 shown in the topology have been configured with the no ip subnet-zero command. Which of the following valid VLSM network numbers could be used for the serial link between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.0/30
• 192.168.1.4/30
• 192.168.1.8/30
• 192.168.1.96/30
• 192.168.1.138/30
• 192.168.1.190/30

3 What is the purpose of the network command used in the configuration of the RIP routing protocol?
• It specifies RIP v2 as the routing protocol.
• It enables the use of VLSM.
• It specifies the fastest path to the destination route.
• It specifies which interfaces will exchange RIP routing updates.
• It activates RIP for all routes that exist within the enterprise network.

4 Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
• RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
• RIP v1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.
• RIP v1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.
• RIP v1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.
• RIP v1 does not support load balancing across equal-cost paths.
• RIP v1 authentication is complicated and time-consuming to configure.

5 Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
• router# show ip address
• router# show ip route
• router# show ip networks
• router# show ip interface brief
• router# debug ip protocol
• router# debug rip update

6 How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
• inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
• ARP requests from connected routers
• manual configuration of routes
• updates from other routers
• DHCP information broadcasts
• updates from the SMTP management information base

7 Which of the following statements are true regarding RIP v1 and v2? (Choose three.)
• Both RIP versions use hop count.
• Both RIP versions can provide authentication of update sources.
• Both RIP versions use 16 hops as a metric for infinite distance.
• RIP v1 uses split horizon to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
• RIP v1 uses hold-down times to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
• RIP v1 broadcasts routing table updates, while RIP v2 multicasts its updates.

8 What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
• utilize one subnet mask throughout an autonomous system
• utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space
• utilize IGRP as the routing protocol in an entire autonomous system
• utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system

9

The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

10

Refer to the network shown. How will Router1 summarize and advertise the four networks attached to its Ethernet ports?
• 172.16.16.0/20
• 172.16.19.0/20
• 172.16.16.0/20 and 172.16.19.0/20
• 172.16.16.0/22
• 172.16.18.0/24
• 172.16.0.0/24

11

A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
• /31
• /30
• /29
• /28
• /27
• /26

12

The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
• 192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
• 192.1.1.128/25
• 192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
• 192.1.1.0/24
• 192.1.1.0/25
• 192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24

13 A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.)
• Select the routing protocol to be configured.
• Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface.
• Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address.
• Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
• Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
• Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information.

14 What is the default network mask for a Class B address?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

15 How often does RIP v1 send routing table updates, by default?
• every 30 seconds
• every 45 seconds
• every 60 seconds
• every 90 seconds

16

An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
• 192.1.1.16/26
• 192.1.1.96/28
• 192.1.1.160/28
• 192.1.1.196/27
• 192.1.1.224/28
• 192.1.1.240/28

17 Which subnet mask is represented by the /21 notation?
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.240.0

18 Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
• the shortage of IP addresses
• the difficulty of assigning static IP addresses to hosts in large enterprises
• the complexity of implementing advanced routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP
• the shortage of network administrators qualified in the use of RIP v1 and IGRP

19

In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
• 3
• 4
• 12
• 36
• 84
• 180

20 A Class C network address has been subnetted into eight subnetworks. Using VLSM, the last subnet will be divided into eight smaller subnetworks. What bit mask must be used to create eight smaller subnetworks, each having two usable host addresses?
• /26
• /27
• /28
• /29
• /30
• /31